- From: Richard Ishida <ishida@w3.org>
- Date: Tue, 27 May 2014 17:44:09 +0100
- To: www International <www-international@w3.org>, W3C Style <www-style@w3.org>
I may have an answer to my question... Off list, Liam Quinn pointed me to http://www.unicode.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=18&t=136 The key information is: "It has been said over and over again that Arabic is not hyphenated. This is true when we refer to Arabic language, but false when we refer to Arabic script. Indeed, there is one language written in Arabic script, namely Uighur, which uses hyphenation just like any European language. Uighur may use the Arabic script but is not a Semitic language and hence does not use implicit short vowels: all vowels are explicitly written and one can easily identify syllables and hyphenate words between them." There is also a reference to hyphenation in http://www.tug.org/tugboat/tb27-2/tb87benatia.pdf, even though it says that hyphenations at the end of lines (presumably for Arabic) have been strictly prohibited since the 10th century. RI On 27/05/2014 17:27, Richard Ishida wrote: > 6.1 Hyphenation Control: the hyphens property > http://dev.w3.org/csswg/css-text-3/#hyphens-property > > > "When shaping scripts such as Arabic are allowed to break within words > due to hyphenation, the characters must still be shaped as if the word > were not broken." > > > I have seen a mail thread about hyphenation of Latin text within Arabic, > but I've heard from a few experts that hyphenation is not actually used > for Arabic-script text. Do we have some evidence that it is used? Just > curious. > > > > [this comment has not been reviewed by the i18n WG] > >
Received on Tuesday, 27 May 2014 16:44:39 UTC