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Re: [css-text] i18n-ISSUE-345: Arabic Hyphenation

From: Richard Ishida <ishida@w3.org>
Date: Tue, 27 May 2014 17:44:09 +0100
Message-ID: <5384C0D9.5050402@w3.org>
To: www International <www-international@w3.org>, W3C Style <www-style@w3.org>
I may have an answer to my question...

Off list, Liam Quinn pointed me to 
http://www.unicode.org/forum/viewtopic.php?f=18&t=136

The key information is:

"It has been said over and over again that Arabic is not hyphenated. 
This is true when we refer to Arabic language, but false when we refer 
to Arabic script. Indeed, there is one language written in Arabic 
script, namely Uighur, which uses hyphenation just like any European 
language. Uighur may use the Arabic script but is not a Semitic language 
and hence does not use implicit short vowels: all vowels are explicitly 
written and one can easily identify syllables and hyphenate
words between them."

There is also a reference to hyphenation in 
http://www.tug.org/tugboat/tb27-2/tb87benatia.pdf, even though it says 
that hyphenations at the end of lines (presumably for Arabic) have been 
strictly prohibited since the 10th century.

RI




On 27/05/2014 17:27, Richard Ishida wrote:
> 6.1 Hyphenation Control: the hyphens property
> http://dev.w3.org/csswg/css-text-3/#hyphens-property
>
>
> "When shaping scripts such as Arabic are allowed to break within words
> due to hyphenation, the characters must still be shaped as if the word
> were not broken."
>
>
> I have seen a mail thread about hyphenation of Latin text within Arabic,
> but I've heard from a few experts that hyphenation is not actually used
> for Arabic-script text. Do we have some evidence that it is used? Just
> curious.
>
>
>
> [this comment has not been reviewed by the i18n WG]
>
>
Received on Tuesday, 27 May 2014 16:44:39 UTC

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