- From: Maciej Stachowiak <mjs@apple.com>
- Date: Wed, 28 Jan 2009 05:00:42 -0800
- To: Philip TAYLOR <Philip-and-LeKhanh@Royal-Tunbridge-Wells.Org>
- Cc: Anne van Kesteren <annevk@opera.com>, HTML WG <public-html@w3.org>
On Jan 28, 2009, at 3:55 AM, Philip TAYLOR wrote: > > > > Anne van Kesteren wrote: > >> Rather, the question is why this specification needs to be >> normative given that it contains the same information as the HTML 5 >> specification already does. > > Is the simple answer to this question not just > "because if it is non-normative, it is of no use" ? > > If I, as a professional webmaster, need to know how > I must express myself in HTML 5 in order for my > document(s) to be valid, there is no point my looking > at a document that is simply informative : if it > is merely informative, then it may be wrong, possibly > by being over-simplistic in some obscure context. But if there are multiple documents that separately normatively specify the same thing, then it is equally possible that they disagree and therefore at least one of the two is wrong. If one reference is normative and the other is not, then it is at least clear which is authoritative when they disagree. Regards, Maciej
Received on Wednesday, 28 January 2009 13:01:40 UTC