- From: Philip TAYLOR <P.Taylor@Rhul.Ac.Uk>
- Date: Thu, 26 Feb 2009 23:20:56 +0000
- To: Ian Hickson <ian@hixie.ch>
- CC: Steven Faulkner <faulkner.steve@gmail.com>, HTMLWG <public-html@w3.org>, W3C WAI Protocols & Formats <w3c-wai-pf@w3.org>
Ian Hickson wrote: >> Doesn't that require that both samples be taken from the same >> homogeneous population ? > > The fact that first two points are so closely correlated means that the > two samples probably are both proportional samples of the same overall > population, which is why we can draw the conclusion from the third data > point from only one sample. We are getting dangerously off-topic, but I disagree. There may well be a correlation between the prevalence of lemons and the prevalence of cones, yet no such correlation between (the prevalence of) either lemons and apples or between cones and apples. Philip TAYLOR
Received on Thursday, 26 February 2009 23:21:51 UTC