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RE: Is it legitimate to compare 2 dateTime without timezones?

From: Ashok Malhotra <ashokma@microsoft.com>
Date: Sat, 27 Oct 2001 11:44:19 -0700
Message-ID: <E5B814702B65CB4DA51644580E4853FB0148854A@red-msg-12.redmond.corp.microsoft.com>
To: "Eric van der Vlist" <vdv@dyomedea.com>, <xmlschema-dev@w3.org>
Many people felt that to insist on a timezone made extra work for them because they always referred to a single local timezone.
Making values partially ordered creates other headaches and I would not
recommend making dates without timezones partially ordered.

All the best, Ashok 

-----Original Message-----
From: Eric van der Vlist [mailto:vdv@dyomedea.com] 
Sent: Saturday, October 27, 2001 1:01 AM
To: 'xmlschema-dev@w3.org'
Subject: Is it legitim to compare 2 dateTime without timezones?


I feel uneasy about the comparison of two xs:dateTime (or xs:date) 
values when none of them have a timezone.

Doing so, we acknowledge that the timezone -which is undetermined when 
not specified- is identical all over an instance document and (still 
more controversial IMO) between the schemas and the instance documents.

It's kind of implying the notion of a "user's timezone" which I haven't 
found explicitely described in the recommendation and which we can 
specify neither in a schema nor in an instance document.

Wouldn't be safer to recognize that, like it is the case when a datetime 
with timezone is compared to a datetime without timezone, there is only 
a partial order when two datetimes without timezones are compared?

Rendez-vous  Paris pour le Forum XML.
Eric van der Vlist       http://xmlfr.org            http://dyomedea.com
http://xsltunit.org      http://4xt.org           http://examplotron.org
Received on Saturday, 27 October 2001 14:44:51 UTC

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