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Is it legitim to compare 2 dateTime without timezones?

From: Eric van der Vlist <vdv@dyomedea.com>
Date: Sat, 27 Oct 2001 10:00:59 +0200
Message-ID: <3BDA69BB.3090707@dyomedea.com>
To: "'xmlschema-dev@w3.org'" <xmlschema-dev@w3.org>

I feel uneasy about the comparison of two xs:dateTime (or xs:date) 
values when none of them have a timezone.

Doing so, we acknowledge that the timezone -which is undetermined when 
not specified- is identical all over an instance document and (still 
more controversial IMO) between the schemas and the instance documents.

It's kind of implying the notion of a "user's timezone" which I haven't 
found explicitely described in the recommendation and which we can 
specify neither in a schema nor in an instance document.

Wouldn't be safer to recognize that, like it is the case when a datetime 
with timezone is compared to a datetime without timezone, there is only 
a partial order when two datetimes without timezones are compared?

Rendez-vous  Paris pour le Forum XML.
Eric van der Vlist       http://xmlfr.org            http://dyomedea.com
http://xsltunit.org      http://4xt.org           http://examplotron.org
Received on Saturday, 27 October 2001 04:00:36 UTC

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