- From: Thomas Lord <lord@emf.net>
- Date: Wed, 29 Jul 2009 14:22:56 -0700
- To: Sylvain Galineau <sylvaing@microsoft.com>
- Cc: "www-font@w3.org" <www-font@w3.org>
On Wed, 2009-07-29 at 21:16 +0000, Sylvain Galineau wrote: > From: Thomas Lord [mailto:lord@emf.net] > > Sent: Wednesday, July 29, 2009 1:19 PM > > To: Sylvain Galineau > > Cc: John Hudson; www-font@w3.org > > Subject: RE: The unmentionable > > > > Firefox does not "[use] same-origin [or] CORS as > > a lightweight form of license restriction." > > So what ? Only that you said otherwise. > If a font EULA wants to suggest using > same-origin/CORS to address hot-linking scenarios, > why does it need to be in a standard ? And why should > such licensing be the only motive to require its > implementation ? I answered those questions to you already. -t > > Unless you're really saying Mozilla's motivation to use > same-origin/CORS was wrong ? If their implementation choice > is valid, why wouldn't it also be valid for non-raw fonts ? > > Why wouldn't a web font standard require same-origin/CORS > for the exact reason Mozilla implemented it, regardless > of what anyone else thinks it means for the protection of > their IP ? Should we not do something for a valid reason A > because other people also want it for some unrelated reason B > that we can't standardize ? Why ? > > And if font creators are happy with that requirement's side-effect > in terms of reducing the exposure of their product, and have > their license language recommend using the exact feature the > standard requires, what is the problem ? Who/what is hurt or broken ? > > > >
Received on Wednesday, 29 July 2009 21:23:36 UTC