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Re: [css-sizing] Why is fill-available not definite?

From: Christian Biesinger <cbiesinger@google.com>
Date: Thu, 10 Mar 2016 16:02:09 -0500
Message-ID: <CAPTJ0XFy=i5FdAxycyQOWZ37tMWh75=N2jXmi4C=2Zx5j_Kyag@mail.gmail.com>
To: www-style list <www-style@w3.org>
Please disregard the "Also" paragraph, I was looking at an old version and
this has been fixed in https://drafts.csswg.org/css-sizing-3/#definite

But the main question still stands.

-Christian

On Thu, Mar 10, 2016 at 3:50 PM, Christian Biesinger <cbiesinger@google.com>
wrote:

> Hi there!
>
> According to https://www.w3.org/TR/css3-sizing/#definite-size:
> definite sizeA size that can be determined without measuring content;
> that is, a <length>, a size of the *initial containing block*, or a
> <percentage> that is resolved against a definite
> <https://www.w3.org/TR/css3-sizing/#definite-size> size.
> That does not include the intrinsic sizing keywords. If nothing else,
> shouldn't fill-available be definite?
>
> Also, the part about percentages is not correct because children of an
> abspos element can have resolved percentages no matter how the parent's
> size is computed (
> https://www.w3.org/TR/CSS2/visudet.html#the-height-property), which this
> section does not mention. Is this not a normative part of the spec?
>
> -Christian
>
Received on Thursday, 10 March 2016 21:02:58 UTC

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