- From: Bruno Fassino <fassino@gmail.com>
- Date: Thu, 4 Feb 2010 07:41:22 +0100
- To: "L. David Baron" <dbaron@dbaron.org>
- Cc: www-style <www-style@w3.org>
On Thu, Feb 4, 2010 at 12:49 AM, L. David Baron <dbaron@dbaron.org> wrote: > On Wednesday 2010-02-03 23:42 +0100, Bruno Fassino wrote: >> In 8.3.1 : >> "When an element's own margins collapse, and that element has had >> clearance applied to it, its _top margin_ collapses with the adjoining >> margins of subsequent siblings but that resulting margin does not >> collapse with the bottom margin of the parent block." >> >> Only the _top margin_ of the element is explicitly mentioned. Why? > > I suppose it's because we already know the bottom margin collapses, > though I agree it's rather unclear. > > I think the paragraph you quote is really just an explanation of how > the earlier statement: > # An element that has had clearance applied to it never collapses > # its top margin with its parent block's bottom margin. > actually works. Of course that earlier sentence currently leaves the same doubt as the one I mentioned: Why does it say "its top margin" and not "its (collapsed) margins" ? Again, being in a case when the element's top and bottom margins collapse, one has probably to infer that stopping the collapsing of the first with the parent's bottom margin is the same as stopping the collapsing of their 'collapsed result'. I agree that a different arrangement of those conditions could make things more understandable. Thanks, Bruno -- Bruno Fassino http://www.brunildo.org/test
Received on Thursday, 4 February 2010 06:41:56 UTC