- From: pat hayes <phayes@ai.uwf.edu>
- Date: Wed, 21 Mar 2001 12:09:23 -0600
- To: jos.deroo.jd@belgium.agfa.com
- Cc: www-rdf-logic@w3.org
> > > > > > > {{:gregorian :grandparent :bret} log:implies
> > > > > > > {{:gregorian :skolemfun :bret} :parent :bret}} log:implies
> > > > > > > {{:gregorian :skolemfun :bret} a :isLoved}.
> > > > > >
> > >.....
> > > > The above appears to have the overall structure
> > > > (A implies B) implies C
> > > > which is rather unlikely, if 'log:implies' means logical implication,
> > > > because that is equivalent to the conjunction
> > > > (A or C) and (B implies C)
> > >
> > >Of course, how could I be so stupid ...
> > >If we assume following axioms
> > > A->B i.e. A log:implies B.
> > > B->C
> > >then the proof of C should look like
> > > A->(B->C)
> > >and not like I've done so far!
> > >Only then we have the tautology
> > > ((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->(B->C))
> > >isn't it?
> >
> > Yes, that follows, but kind of trivially, since if (B->C) then
> > (A->(B->C)) no matter whether A is true or false. And the reverse:
> > *** ((A->B)&(B->C)) <- (A->(B->C))
> > is not valid.
> > I think the equivalence you want might be this:
> > ((A&B)->C) <-> (A->(B->C))
> > which is both valid and nontrivial (?)
>
>OK
>
>(stupid | not-stupid) ->
> (A&(A->B)&(B->C))->((A->B)->C)
True, but you can do much better than that:
(A&(A->B)&(B->C))->C
and since, trivially,
C -> ((A->B)->C)
your conclusion follows.
BTW, it occurs to me that your original tautology
((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->(B->C))
could have beeen written as
((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->C)
>also (if we don't have qualified variables)
> A is true by fact
> A->B can be-simplified-to/stand-for B which is also true
I wouldnt say 'be-simplified-to/stand-for' here. A->B can't be said
to 'stand for' B in any reasonable sense, and it would be invalid to
simplify an implication to its consequent. What would be reasonable
to say is that B follows from A and (A->B) taken together: that is
modus ponens, one of the oldest rules in the book. This rule is
correct because if A is true, and if (A->B) is also true, then B must
also be true. Contrariwise, if (A->B) is true and B is false, then A
must be false (modus tollens, the second-oldest rule in the book);
but either way, you do have to say that the implication is true,
since if (A->B) is false then A must be true and B must be false. It
would also be reasonable to say that if (A->B) is true then it can be
'read' as a licence to infer B from A; but again, only as long as it
((A->B)) stays true.
Pat Hayes
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Received on Wednesday, 21 March 2001 13:07:46 UTC