- From: pat hayes <phayes@ai.uwf.edu>
- Date: Wed, 21 Mar 2001 12:09:23 -0600
- To: jos.deroo.jd@belgium.agfa.com
- Cc: www-rdf-logic@w3.org
> > > > > > > {{:gregorian :grandparent :bret} log:implies > > > > > > > {{:gregorian :skolemfun :bret} :parent :bret}} log:implies > > > > > > > {{:gregorian :skolemfun :bret} a :isLoved}. > > > > > > > > >..... > > > > The above appears to have the overall structure > > > > (A implies B) implies C > > > > which is rather unlikely, if 'log:implies' means logical implication, > > > > because that is equivalent to the conjunction > > > > (A or C) and (B implies C) > > > > > >Of course, how could I be so stupid ... > > >If we assume following axioms > > > A->B i.e. A log:implies B. > > > B->C > > >then the proof of C should look like > > > A->(B->C) > > >and not like I've done so far! > > >Only then we have the tautology > > > ((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->(B->C)) > > >isn't it? > > > > Yes, that follows, but kind of trivially, since if (B->C) then > > (A->(B->C)) no matter whether A is true or false. And the reverse: > > *** ((A->B)&(B->C)) <- (A->(B->C)) > > is not valid. > > I think the equivalence you want might be this: > > ((A&B)->C) <-> (A->(B->C)) > > which is both valid and nontrivial (?) > >OK > >(stupid | not-stupid) -> > (A&(A->B)&(B->C))->((A->B)->C) True, but you can do much better than that: (A&(A->B)&(B->C))->C and since, trivially, C -> ((A->B)->C) your conclusion follows. BTW, it occurs to me that your original tautology ((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->(B->C)) could have beeen written as ((A->B)&(B->C))->(A->C) >also (if we don't have qualified variables) > A is true by fact > A->B can be-simplified-to/stand-for B which is also true I wouldnt say 'be-simplified-to/stand-for' here. A->B can't be said to 'stand for' B in any reasonable sense, and it would be invalid to simplify an implication to its consequent. What would be reasonable to say is that B follows from A and (A->B) taken together: that is modus ponens, one of the oldest rules in the book. This rule is correct because if A is true, and if (A->B) is also true, then B must also be true. Contrariwise, if (A->B) is true and B is false, then A must be false (modus tollens, the second-oldest rule in the book); but either way, you do have to say that the implication is true, since if (A->B) is false then A must be true and B must be false. It would also be reasonable to say that if (A->B) is true then it can be 'read' as a licence to infer B from A; but again, only as long as it ((A->B)) stays true. Pat Hayes --------------------------------------------------------------------- IHMC (850)434 8903 home 40 South Alcaniz St. (850)202 4416 office Pensacola, FL 32501 (850)202 4440 fax phayes@ai.uwf.edu http://www.coginst.uwf.edu/~phayes
Received on Wednesday, 21 March 2001 13:07:46 UTC