From: Michael Kifer <kifer@cs.sunysb.edu>

Date: Fri, 02 Mar 2001 14:13:41 -0500

Message-Id: <200103021913.OAA04541@sbcs.cs.sunysb.edu>

To: www-ql@w3.org

Date: Fri, 02 Mar 2001 14:13:41 -0500

Message-Id: <200103021913.OAA04541@sbcs.cs.sunysb.edu>

To: www-ql@w3.org

Ingo> I understand there currently can not be a literal roundtrip Ingo> FLWR->Algebra->FLWR. But unless this becomes feasible, FLWR-XQuery must Ingo> not be considered orthogonal enough. This may require some heuristics to Ingo> disambiguate the rewrite to FLWR syntax. Jonathan> Can you unpack this a little - what problems might arise if more Jonathan> than one XQuery expression can map onto the same XML Query Jonathan> Algebra expression? Let's not loose perspective here. The query language and the algebra are independent things, and in the classical architecture the purpose of the the algebra is to implement the query language. Let us look at the following classical textbook issues (I am deliberately avoiding specific names like FLWR or XML Algebra): 1. The mapping Query lang -> Algebra a. Does it exist? If it doesn't, this means the algebra is not complete with respect to the query language. Might indicate that the algebra is inadequate or that the query language is "too powerful". b. Is it unique? As I explained in a previous message (and which is a textbook truth that reflects the past 30 years), such a mapping is not unique AND SHOULD NOT BE. Even in the relatively simple (compared to XML) relational domain it is not unique. Think "query optimization". The only thing we can hope for is to come up with a simple and dumb translation that shows that the query languge is implementable in the given algebra. c. Is it one-to-one? (leaving out "onto" for now) Why does it matter? SQL->algebra is not 1-1 (even for the common dumb translation). What kind of disaster is going to happen if two equivalent queries that differ syntactically in some way are mapped to the same algebraic expression? In fact, practical query languages typically have all kinds of syntactic sugar, which is discarded in translation. Should these be prohibited? 2. The mapping Algebra -> Query language. a. Does it exist? This is, again, the issue of completeness. Does it matter? This is really a theoretical question about the class of abstract queries defined as (Algebra) minus (query lang). Do we need to capture these queries in a declarative language? Can they be captured without sacrificing the ability to optimize the query language? Maybe the language is inadequate or maybe the algebra is too powerful. Maybe the difference should be captured using something like the language of PSM (persistent stored modules) -- a procedural (non-algebraic) programming language that is tightly integrated with the query language. All these issues are worth considering, but the absense of such a mapping doesn't automatically disqualify the algebra or the query language. b. Is it unique? Why does it matter? It doesn't matter in the least! As long as the different mapping are semantically sound this shouldn't be an issue. c. Is it 1-1? Doesn't matter as long as f(a)=f(b) implies that "a" and "b" are equivalent algebraic expressions. 3. Are the mappings Query lang-> Algebra and Algebra -> Query lang inverse functions. Again, why does it matter? In view of 1(b) and 2(b), this is impossible unless you declare certain dumb mappings to be canonical. However, I think it should be clear by now that searching for canonical mappings that are inverses of each other is a total waste of time. Even in the formal theory the mappings rel calculus->rel algebra and rel algebra->rel calculus that one typically finds in textbooks are not inverses of each other. I believe that nobody seriously entertained this thought in case of SQL. I think (3) is a moot question. --michaelReceived on Friday, 2 March 2001 14:14:19 UTC

*
This archive was generated by hypermail 2.4.0
: Friday, 17 January 2020 22:43:41 UTC
*