multilingual braille question

Is there anyone out there who can tell me whether I have this right?

As I understand it braille is usually abbreviated, and that there are 
different conventions for abbreviation depending on the language. In 
other words there is French braille and German braille. If this is the 
case, is there a poassibility that a sentence written in one language and 
contracted will appear to be logical in another language, but have a 
different meaning. And if so, will this occur more than once in any 
person's lifetime?

Charles McCathieNevile

Received on Thursday, 12 November 1998 22:51:34 UTC