- From: Boris Zbarsky <bzbarsky@MIT.EDU>
- Date: Mon, 11 Jan 2010 02:40:00 -0500
- To: Sean Hogan <shogun70@westnet.com.au>
- CC: Lachlan Hunt <lachlan.hunt@lachy.id.au>, public-webapps <public-webapps@w3.org>
On 1/11/10 1:24 AM, Sean Hogan wrote:
> That's correct. jQuery's $(element).find("div") is the equivalent of
> SelectorsAPI2's element.querySelectorAll(":scope div") or
So in fact jquery can simply implement Element.find in terms of
querySelectorAll by just prepending ":scope " to the selector string,
right? Note that this happens to work even for the "> div" case (by
converting the selector to ":scope > div", which is what jquery means).
So the "> div" thing doesn't seem to require preparsing (modulo commas
in the selector; was that the key point?). Of course the jquery
selectors that aren't in CSS do (or possibly post-parsing depending on
how it's implemented).
> My point is that jQuery's $(element).find("> div") isn't supported
> (without pre-processing by the JS lib) by element.queryScopedSelectorAll().
...
> element.queryScopedSelectorAll(":scope > div") generally becomes
> element.parentNode.querySelectorAll(":scope > div", element) which is
> the same as
> element.querySelectorAll(":scope > div", element) or even
> element.querySelectorAll(":scope > div")
That's what I'm confused about. Does implementing element.find("> div")
as element.queryScopedSelectorAll(":scope > div") not do what the
current jquery code does? If not, how do they differ?
I'm still confused about queryScopedSelectorAll, though. It sounds from
your example like queryScopedSelectorAll just prepends ":scope " to the
whole query string and then calls querySelectorAll on the parentNode of
the scope node, with the scope node passed in as the optional argument. So:
element.queryScopedSelectorAll(myStr)
is the same as:
element.parentNode.querySelectorAll(":scope " + myStr, element);
is that correct?
-Boris
Received on Monday, 11 January 2010 07:40:35 UTC