Re: [poe] How Rules become Active

Coming back to the current definition:

> For a Rule to become effective, all of it's Constraints must be satisfied and any applicable relationship to a Duty must be fulfilled.

Evaluating if a Constraint is satisfied or not is covered by the IM.

But what what about "any applicable relationship to a Duty must be fulfilled."
* what makes a Duty "applicable" and what not?  Is this equivalent to: the Duty is Active or Not-Active?
* a ambiguous requirement is "Duty must be fulfilled": example: a duty requires to pay 100 EUR. But what if the asset of the Permission is not an asset the assignee of the Policy wants to use? The receiver will definitely not pay. In this case the duty is not fulfilled and therefore the Permission including it Not-Active.
* But that result builds on a side effect: the duty is not not-fulfilled because the assignee does not want to or has not paid yet; it is not fulfilled as the - let's call it - context of the evaluation of the Rule does not match the Rule.
* I think ODRL has to include such a context into any realistic evaluation of "Active - Not-Active". If a Rule includes a constraint "Use only after 1 January 2018" the context must deliver the current date.
* I think this is a strong reason why checking the assignee and the target property values of a Rule against a context defining both should be part of an "Active or Not-Active" evaluation. 

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Received on Thursday, 24 August 2017 16:01:31 UTC