- From: Peter F. Patel-Schneider <pfps@research.bell-labs.com>
- Date: Mon, 09 Mar 2009 07:12:06 -0400 (EDT)
- To: schneid@fzi.de
- Cc: bparsia@cs.manchester.ac.uk, ian.horrocks@comlab.ox.ac.uk, public-owl-wg@w3.org
From: "Michael Schneider" <schneid@fzi.de> Subject: RE: normative and non-normative references Date: Mon, 9 Mar 2009 11:39:34 +0100 >>-----Original Message----- >>From: public-owl-wg-request@w3.org [mailto:public-owl-wg-request@w3.org] >>On Behalf Of Bijan Parsia >>Sent: Saturday, March 07, 2009 12:53 AM >>To: Michael Schneider >>Cc: Ian Horrocks; W3C OWL Working Group >>Subject: Re: normative and non-normative references >> >>On 6 Mar 2009, at 23:27, Michael Schneider wrote: >> >>>> -----Original Message----- >>>> From: public-owl-wg-request@w3.org [mailto:public-owl-wg- >>request@w3.org >>>> ] >>>> On Behalf Of Ian Horrocks >>>> Sent: Friday, March 06, 2009 11:54 PM >>>> To: W3C OWL Working Group >>>> Subject: normative and non-normative references >>>> >>>> Peter has updated Manchester Syntax to distinguish normative and non- >>>> normative references [1]. >>>> >>>> Can other editors please do the same. >>> >>> Hi! >>> >>> I wonder if any of the references in the RDF-Based Semantics >>> >>> <http://www.w3.org/2007/OWL/wiki/RDF-Based_Semantics#References> >>> >>> is non-normative. What are the criteria for normative vs. non- >>> normative >>> references? >> >>If a normative criterion of your spec depends on a reference, then the >>reference is normative. > > I disagree. So do I, but my wording was supposed to be a reflection of W3C practice, not the way I think things should work. > For me, references can never be normative or non-normative > themselves. Only the context they appear in can be. Agreed. > And since I have tagged > all non-normative parts of the RDF-Based Semantics clearly as such, I don't > see why I should put additional (redundant!) normativity statements to the > references list. It's the W3C way. (I'm not sure whether it is absolutely required, but certainly lots of W3C RECs divide up their references this way.) > But even if I would agree, I really don't see that such a separation is easy > to produce in the RDF-Based Semantics. For example, you say: > >>I found some mislabeled refs: >> [OWL 2 Structural Spec] > > (Thanks for this. Will fix them!) > >>But otherwise, they seem normative to me. > > While Peter says in his mail: > > [[ > Normative > > CURIE > OWL 2 SS&FS - because of datatypes > RDF Concepts - because of RDF graphs > RDF Semantic - duh! > RDF:Text > RFC 2119 > RFC 3987 > > Non-normative > > Direct Semantics ! > RDF Mapping ! - because Section 7 is informative > OWL S&AS > RFC 2396 > ]] > > And I cannot agree with both of you. > > For example, you both say that CURIE is normative. But I don't see why. I > could equally well use full-expanded IRIs everywhere in the document. But I > am not sure, because the RDF-Based Semantics makes heavy use of CURIEs > throughout the document. You use CURIES, so the CURIE CR may be normative. I didn't do a complete check of everything in your document, so my characterization might not be totally correct. > I'm even less sure regarding OWL S&AS. Saying that OWL 1 Full is > non-normative, as Peter does, might be valid, but only for the very > technical fact that OWL 2 Full hasn't been spec'ed as a semantic extension > of OWL 1 Full. So non-normative. My rule of thumb is that (a portion of) a document is normative if changing it changes your spec. As you don't depend on OWL 1 for any technical stuff, therefore no OWL 1 documents can be normative for you. (I believe that this is true in general for OWL 2 documents.) > If it had, then I would be again unclear whether the RDF > Semantics is normative or not, since in this case it would have been fully > covered by OWL 1 Full. Indirectly normative, at least. I would say that in this case if you referenced it directly it would count as normative. > So, there seems to be, at least, no obvious line of separation. > > Further, tagging OWL 1 Full as non-normative in the OWL 2 Full spec seems to > me at least highly unwise, because I can imagine certain people putting this > heavily into question. Not making an explicit distinction will save us from > such worries. > > But I also have a principle concern: I don't want to play with normativity > statements without any necessity. I consider changing something from > normative to non-normative to be a change in design. Not saying anything, > again, will avoid such problems. > > So is there any requirement to do this separation? Does W3C documents > require this? Otherwise, I don't see why I should change the RDF-Based > Semantics. I need to see a clear reason for this, and I haven't heard any so > far. The current state is perfectly fine for me, and I don't expect anyone > to formally object against /not/ having such a distinction. I'm not so > certain, however, about the other way around... I don't expect that there would be any *objections* about this at all, just, perhaps someone politely pointing out something that they think should be changed. >>Cheers, >>Bijan. > > Cheers, > Michael peter
Received on Monday, 9 March 2009 11:11:49 UTC