- From: Geoff Elgey <elgey@dstc.qut.edu.au>
- Date: Wed, 04 Jul 2001 11:11:15 +1000
- CC: xmlschema-dev@w3.org
G'day,
> I wonder if there is any semantical difference between these 2
> schema fragments:
A more general question: can I have two schemas S1 and S2 (perhaps with
opposite semantics, such as S1 representing a "Sell" and S2 representing
a "Buy"), such that a given instance document satisfies both schemas?
That is, is there any way to treat "<Foo>" as an element in S1, but as
character data in S2, etc?
Cheers,
Geoff
--
Geoffrey Elgey ph: +61-7-38641487 Distributed Systems Technology
Centre
Security Unit fax:+61-7-38641282 QUT, Brisbane, Australia
http://www.dstc.edu.au
DSTC is the Australian W3C Office email: elgey@dstc.edu.au
Received on Tuesday, 3 July 2001 21:11:26 UTC