- From: Aung Aung <aaung@microsoft.com>
- Date: Fri, 17 Aug 2001 09:34:40 -0700
- To: <xmlschema-dev@w3.org>
- Message-ID: <22AC3F532BE25849BF04BE95350FF91B03BC4EB6@red-msg-08.redmond.corp.microsoft.com>
Hi Priscilla, Yes, if <key> and <keyref> is in the same level under one element scope, it will/should work. However, the example in 3.4.2, has a <key name='reg'> defined but not referenced any where. Thus, the example does not give clear picture of the condition A and B below: A: (this is what I think the spec says how it should work, here the scope of the key 'A' is element a, and all keyref under the scope will see key A) <root> <element name="a"> <key name="A"> <element name="b"> <keyref refer="A"> </element> </element> </root> B: (this is what you and Eric come agreeement on how it should work, if that is the case, how do you defind the scopeof the key 'B'? it cannot be all the way to the root element, can it? ) <root> <element name="a"> <keyref refer="B"> <element name="b"> <key name="B"> </element> </element> </root> How about this: should this work? ( how/why?) C: <root> <element name="a"> <key name="A"> </element> <element name="b"> <keyref refer="A"> </element> </root> The fact that two of you come to an agreement that is quite differ from what the spec said and no one from the standard come out to (approve/disapprove) it is bad. The standard should give out clear examples, not all possible cases, but at least several cases that will clarify these confusion, so that all implementors will not have different implemetation and not have to fight in the future. Thanks, -Aung
Received on Friday, 17 August 2001 12:35:32 UTC