- From: Pat Hayes <phayes@ai.uwf.edu>
- Date: Thu, 4 Apr 2002 13:48:09 -0600
- To: "Guus Schreiber" <schreiber@swi.psy.uva.nl>, <www-webont-wg@w3.org>, "Jonathan Borden" <jonathan@openhealth.org>
(I seem to have missed the original message, sorry) >"Guus Schreiber" <schreiber@swi.psy.uva.nl>:: > >> Would it be legal to have (in the same ontology) a statement >> >> Individual( x, ...) >> >> as well as a statement >> >> Class( x, ...) >> >> If it is legal, what would it mean, e.g. can/should it refer to the same >> 'x'? > > (I guess this falls under the SEM area) > > I see no reason why not. It would be legal in RDFS (with the same 'x') and its perfectly meaningful. Any thing can be regarded as a class, and also as a property. (Exactly what is in that class and what the property is true of depends on what else you say about it, of course.) However, the description logicians may have some DL reason to disallow it. Pat -- --------------------------------------------------------------------- IHMC (850)434 8903 home 40 South Alcaniz St. (850)202 4416 office Pensacola, FL 32501 (850)202 4440 fax phayes@ai.uwf.edu http://www.coginst.uwf.edu/~phayes
Received on Thursday, 4 April 2002 14:48:09 UTC