- From: Booth, David (HP Software - Boston) <dbooth@hp.com>
- Date: Tue, 24 Jul 2007 14:19:48 -0400
- To: <conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz>
- Cc: "Mark Baker" <distobj@acm.org>, "Dan Brickley" <danbri@danbri.org>, "Chris Bizer" <chris@bizer.de>, <www-tag@w3.org>, <semantic-web@w3.org>, "Linking Open Data" <linking-open-data@simile.mit.edu>
> From: Conal Tuohy [mailto:conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz] > > On Tue, 2007-07-24 Booth, David (HP Software - Boston) wrote: > > . . . For the > > most part, the only way one can be sure that two URIs really > > do name the same resource is if they are provably defined to > > do so, such as: (a) if they are the same URI; > > (b) if one is declared by its owner to be owl:sameAs the other; > > or (c) if the URI declarations are exactly the same. > > Why (in b above) only "by its owner"? > Is it because only the owner of URI A "really knows" what URI A > means? It is because only the URI owner has the authority to declare what resource that URI names, i.e., to define the association between the URI and a particular resource. See WebArch section 2.2.2: http://www.w3.org/TR/webarch/#uri-assignment This does *not* mean that the URI owner also owns the resource. For example I could mint a URI that identifies your car. > If so, how does the owner of URI A know what URI B > "really" means? Hopefully, by dereferencing B to find an authoritative URI declaration for B, i.e., a declaration that defines the association between B and a particular resource. If B cannot be dereferenced, then you might need to call B's owner on the phone and ask. David Booth, Ph.D. HP Software +1 617 629 8881 office | dbooth@hp.com http://www.hp.com/go/software Opinions expressed herein are those of the author and do not represent the official views of HP unless explicitly stated otherwise.
Received on Tuesday, 24 July 2007 18:20:52 UTC