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RE: Terminology Question concerning Web Architecture and LinkedData

From: Booth, David (HP Software - Boston) <dbooth@hp.com>
Date: Tue, 24 Jul 2007 14:19:48 -0400
Message-ID: <EBBD956B8A9002479B0C9CE9FE14A6C202F3456F@tayexc19.americas.cpqcorp.net>
To: <conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz>
Cc: "Mark Baker" <distobj@acm.org>, "Dan Brickley" <danbri@danbri.org>, "Chris Bizer" <chris@bizer.de>, <www-tag@w3.org>, <semantic-web@w3.org>, "Linking Open Data" <linking-open-data@simile.mit.edu>

> From: Conal Tuohy [mailto:conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz]
> On Tue, 2007-07-24 Booth, David (HP Software - Boston) wrote:
> > . . .  For the
> > most part, the only way one can be sure that two URIs really
> > do name the same resource is if they are provably defined to
> > do so, such as: (a) if they are the same URI;
> > (b) if one is declared by its owner to be owl:sameAs the other; 
> > or (c) if the URI declarations are exactly the same.
> Why (in b above) only "by its owner"?
> Is it because only the owner of URI A "really knows" what URI A
> means? 

It is because only the URI owner has the authority to declare what
resource that URI names, i.e., to define the association between the URI
and a particular resource.  See WebArch section 2.2.2:

This does *not* mean that the URI owner also owns the resource.  For
example I could mint a URI that identifies your car.

> If so, how does the owner of URI A know what URI B
> "really" means?

Hopefully, by dereferencing B to find an authoritative URI declaration
for B, i.e., a declaration that defines the association between B and a
particular resource.  If B cannot be dereferenced, then you might need
to call B's owner on the phone and ask.

David Booth, Ph.D.
HP Software
+1 617 629 8881 office  |  dbooth@hp.com

Opinions expressed herein are those of the author and do not represent
the official views of HP unless explicitly stated otherwise.
Received on Tuesday, 24 July 2007 18:20:52 UTC

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