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Re: [css3-flex] calc(flex) and concept of free space.

From: Brad Kemper <brad.kemper@gmail.com>
Date: Thu, 3 Jun 2010 09:33:40 -0700
Cc: Andrew Fedoniouk <news@terrainformatica.com>, Zack Weinberg <zweinberg@mozilla.com>, www-style@w3.org
Message-Id: <DC5D04E2-285C-4A5F-BC3B-26EE91FC68A8@gmail.com>
To: "Tab Atkins Jr." <jackalmage@gmail.com>

On Jun 3, 2010, at 9:16 AM, Tab Atkins Jr. wrote:

>> <div width:1000px padding-left:1fx
>>        box-sizing:border-box *flow:vertical*>
>>  <div #A width:calc(700px + 1fx) />
>>  <div #B width:2fx />
>> </div>
>> What would be the width of div#A ?
>> (#B there is just for illustration).
> It's 700px, by the exact same logic in the previous version of this
> problem.  (#B is 0px wide.)
> It would be more useful if you could explain precisely which part of
> my explanation wasn't useful.  There's something about this case that
> you don't get, and my explanations aren't helping, so I'd like to know
> why, just in case it's something I'm fundamentally missing.

I don't think it makes any sense for the fx in the padding of the outer div to participate in the space distribution of the children. I do see where you have that in the draft [1], but it just seems unexpected, inconsistent, and likely to confuse. I would rather that it was only the space of the actual children that got divvied up (including the padding and margins of those children).

I suppose this is done so that you can use flex on boxes whose only children are text nodes, but wouldn't it be just as easy to set the display of their parent to 'flex'?

1. One very long URL: http://www.xanthir.com/document/document.php?id=615d486a4dd75e8f4ae644eaa02af778211809483881e4964e66c29d5618b7ae457190b450c9e53abee05aa2e590cefc8100663c8d91328a1bd786ab9f1e7f2b#section1.4.0
Received on Thursday, 3 June 2010 16:34:16 UTC

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