- From: David Woolley <david@djwhome.demon.co.uk>
- Date: Fri, 25 Aug 2006 08:30:44 +0100 (BST)
- To: www-style@w3.org
> If one does not use the name in the font, how does one know that the * font is already installed on the machine? My belief is that the Microsoft implementation ignores the one that is already on the machine. > > If the same version of the font is already installed why does one need * to install it again? Because it may not actually be the same font. If we are talking about free fonts, trademark enforcement can be a problem, and if we are talking about Microsoft's Arial, I may want to have the version that has the PinYin special characters when the recipient only has the older version, without them. > > How does the OS address using the font if you don't use the name of the > font and call it something else? Yes, I know that some graphics engines > will use the font from the web, but they still need to be "loaded" > to access data. Embedded font subsets in PDF generally have generated names. > If the font name is trade marked and a person is changing the name * are there legal concerns? Yes, this is a run-time issue only for the * page. However, the questions do need to be asked. IANAL, but I believe the problem goes the other way. In any case, this would make font subset embedding in PDF illegal if it were true. I vaguely remember that Microsoft print drivers use generated names when downloading subsets to printers.
Received on Friday, 25 August 2006 07:45:56 UTC