- From: John Cowan <cowan@ccil.org>
- Date: Wed, 30 Apr 2008 11:41:41 -0400
- To: Leif Halvard Silli <lhs@malform.no>
- Cc: Frank Ellermann <hmdmhdfmhdjmzdtjmzdtzktdkztdjz@gmail.com>, www-international@w3.org
Leif Halvard Silli scripsit: > So sad. To refer to Western Frisian, one can use fy-DE, but for Northern > Frisian one must use a completely other pattern - frr. Rightly Western Frisian is simply "fy"; "fy-NL" would be redundant, and "fy-DE" would mean the variety of Western Frisian spoken in Germany, which almost certainly does not exist. > But why must the -DK only refer to Denmark? I take it to refer to the > "official" Danish flavour of signlanguage. There is no one sign language -- sign languages are as alike or as different as spoken languages. English and American Sign Languages, for example, are completely different, as mutually unintelligible as English and French. As I posted earlier, though, French and American Sign Language have a common origin, and some degree of mutual intelligibility may exist. > According to Wikipedia, Signlangauges *can* be grouped in > languages/dialects close to each others. Japanese and Danish will not be > be close, then, I suppose. But the Scandinavian* signlanguages will be. In fact yes. > >Unfortunately plain Frisian was lost hundreds of years ago. > > So was plain Norwegian. Not really comparable. -- That you can cover for the plentiful John Cowan and often gaping errors, misconstruals, http://www.ccil.org/~cowan and disinformation in your posts cowan@ccil.org through sheer volume -- that is another misconception. --Mike to Peter
Received on Wednesday, 30 April 2008 15:42:16 UTC