question on domain

Hello,

 

First, I hope this is the correct group for this.  I have a reasonably
basic (I hope) question on RDF properties.

 

Based on my understanding, one can define a property and then specify
the domain for that property which is the list of classes in which that
property is allowed.  However, one cannot define a class and specify
(from the class's point of view) which properties are applicable to that
class.  The specification of which properties are applicable to a class
is from the property's point of view.  If this is correct, it seems to
reduce the ability for someone else to re-use my properties within their
own classes (without asking me to update the domain on my properties).
It seems backwards.  

 

Let's assume that person X creates a property "hasName" and specifies
the domain to include the class "Person".  Later, person Y creates the
class "Pet" and everyone involved (including person X) agrees that
"hasName" is applicable to both people and pets.  If all this occurs
within one organization, it is not terrible to change the schema for
"hasName" to include "Pet" in its domain.  But this would not be
possible in web at large.

 

I am looking at this from an object oriented perspective where I would
define a class and then list the attributes/properties of that class.
In other words, properties cannot exist by themselves.  Perhaps that is
where I am going astray or perhaps I am missing a nuance of RDF.

 

I appreciate any comments on this.  It has seemed like a "silly"
question to me for some time...but is also one that has bothered me.

 

Take care,

 

Matt Johnson

Received on Thursday, 20 April 2006 22:52:02 UTC