- From: Francois Bry <bry@ifi.lmu.de>
- Date: Tue, 25 Apr 2006 09:54:01 +0200
- To: Michael Kifer <kifer@cs.sunysb.edu>
- CC: edbark@nist.gov, public-rif-wg@w3.org
Michael Kifer wrote: > The above must be taken in the context of my earlier message > http://lists.w3.org/Archives/Public/public-rif-wg/2006Mar/0161.html > where I *proved* that the rule set for which those normative rules act as > constraints must have some sort of closed world assumption (more precisely, > cannot use the normal first-order semantics). > Consider for example a national regulation (eg tax regulation, or traffic order regulation) and a suprA-national regulation on the same subject, as eg the European Commission specifies. Both, the national and the supra-national in some cases have to be expressed, and processed without CWA. CXonsider eg tax regulations. If tax payers, tax declarations, etc, ie the instance level, is not considered, then therfe is no need for CWA, a CWA would even not make sense. Now the supra-national regulation is a normative specification for the national regulation. > I did not say that normative rules must be "governed" by CWA, because I > don't know what this might mean. > > If you think that my very short proof has a bug then please point this out. > I am not at all thinking there might be a nmistake in your proof. I am only thinking that, most ptobably, you have been considering (explicitly or implicitley) assumptions that UI am not thinking of. And I think my example of national and supra-national regulations can also be seen as a proof for my argument. Regards, François
Received on Tuesday, 25 April 2006 07:54:10 UTC