Re: [proposals] Why would notice and consent not be adequate? (Notice and consent debate) (#5)

When the browser is processing people's personal data for B2B processing purposes (e.g., advertising use cases), shouldn't the browser obtain the appropriate notice and consent from consumers to do so, unless operating under a separate legal basis (at least in EEA regions)?

I agree with the above that the output of such B2B processing purposes might NOT need further consent for a recipient of to receive the outout of this process (e.g., aggregate data in an attribution report). 

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Received on Thursday, 17 February 2022 02:18:57 UTC