Re: ObjectOneOf subClassOf/equivalent

Hi,We assume that all individuals are different.Adding subClassOf(KingdomfamilyMember ObjectOneOf("Elizabeth" "Lio" "peter") => this means if we have an individual member of the KingdomfamilyMember  than he can only be one of {"Elizabeth" "Lio" "peter"} not another one. but we can't say  that Elizabeth is necessarily KingdomfamilyMember  . that's it?
However when we say equvalentClasses(KingdomfamilyMember ObjectOneOf("Elizabeth" "Lio" "peter")  so when we say "Elizabeth" we undersatnd that is KingdomfamilyMember. (besides  , the other direction since we have  a necessay and sufficient condition)Is this example is meaningful or we can find other more meaningful ones where the subClassOf is useful ore than equialent one?thx
 


     Le Lundi 25 mai 2015 17h52, Ignazio Palmisano <ipalmisano.mailings@gmail.com> a écrit :
   

 
On 25 May 2015 16:52, "Leila Bayoudhi" <bayoudhileila@yahoo.fr> wrote:
>
> Hi,
> Please, can you clarify for me these points:
> Can I add an axiom to an ontology subClassOf( X ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3) : in each real case can I apply it?
> It isn't better to add equivalentClasses( X  ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3) ,The two axioms are not equivalent.
For example, adding 
EquivalentClasses(X ObjectOneOf(x1) )
to an ontology with the first axiom in it does not impact the extension of ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3), but doing the same with the other axiom has quite an effect.Which one you should use is up to the domain you're modelling. Is there an equivalence or not? Are x1, x2, x3 different individuals?
I.> I remarked that each one of them close the world? Aren't they? 
> Is there a case where we have to add the first axiom rather than the second?
> thx
>
>