Re: ObjectOneOf subClassOf/equivalent

On 25 May 2015 16:52, "Leila Bayoudhi" <bayoudhileila@yahoo.fr> wrote:
>
> Hi,
> Please, can you clarify for me these points:
> Can I add an axiom to an ontology subClassOf( X ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3) :
in each real case can I apply it?
> It isn't better to add equivalentClasses( X  ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3) ,

The two axioms are not equivalent.
For example, adding
EquivalentClasses(X ObjectOneOf(x1) )
to an ontology with the first axiom in it does not impact the extension of
ObjectOneOf(x1 x2 x3), but doing the same with the other axiom has quite an
effect.

Which one you should use is up to the domain you're modelling. Is there an
equivalence or not? Are x1, x2, x3 different individuals?
I.

> I remarked that each one of them close the world? Aren't they?
> Is there a case where we have to add the first axiom rather than the
second?
> thx
>
>