- From: Yves Savourel <ysavourel@enlaso.com>
- Date: Mon, 13 Aug 2012 06:27:41 -0700
- To: <public-multilingualweb-lt@w3.org>
> About the text saying that the attribute only > relates to the translated content: > > Why should this also apply to the original text? Is > not the content provider of the original text the > one who also states the ITS attributes? Sure. But how can we make the distinction between before and after translation when looking at the document just from an ITS viewpoint? I guess what I'm wondering is if we could not simplify things by applying the rule to the content (whether it's already translated or not) rather than a specific stage. After all, I assume the cases where the restrictions apply only to the translation are limited. Hopefully others will have some input on this. Cheers, -yves
Received on Monday, 13 August 2012 13:28:15 UTC