- From: Richard Wordingham <richard.wordingham@ntlworld.com>
- Date: Tue, 8 Sep 2015 06:26:35 +0100
- To: <public-i18n-mongolian@w3.org>
On Tue, 8 Sep 2015 12:28:54 +0900 <jrmt@almas.co.jp> wrote: > I think there are a lot these kind of compound none. > > For Example, ᠴᠤᠭ + ᠤᠷᠭᠢᠯ = ᠴᠤᠭ᠋ᠤ᠋ᠷᠭᠢᠯ Can you please confirm that I am reading what you wrote as intended. 1) Both halves of this word are masculine. 2) The first GA has the dotted medial form. 3) The second GA has the undotted feminine form. Why did you write FVS1 after the first GA? Does final GA undergo gender reassignment in such words when the parts have different genders? Does initial I in the second part make the final GA feminine? Is the behaviour mixed? For example, I can imagine different behaviour for different initial vowels in the second part. Richard.
Received on Tuesday, 8 September 2015 05:27:15 UTC