- From: Noah Mendelsohn <nrm@arcanedomain.com>
- Date: Mon, 17 Jan 2011 20:48:29 -0500
- To: John Cowan <cowan@mercury.ccil.org>
- CC: Norman Walsh <ndw@nwalsh.com>, public-html-xml@w3.org
On 1/17/2011 4:24 PM, John Cowan wrote: > Despite > the code/data duality of XML (and Lisp), we typically know whether a given > piece of text is code or data. Really? Consider: <script type="application/xml"> <newlang:program xmlns:newlang="...URI for the language..."> ...program in XML syntax goes here... ...this should execute, just as javascript does... </newlang:program> </script> vs. <script type="application/xml"> <data:items xmlns:data="...URI for the data model..."> ...please don't even try to execute data... </data:items> </script> How in general does a browser know whether something is >intended< as code or data, if we authorize use of <script> for both? AFAIK today, there is a risk that my browser won't support the language used for the script, but there's no ambiguity that there >is< an executable script, and that the intention is that it be run. Once <script> gets overloaded for data, you lose that distinction. As I proposed on the phone, something like: <script type="application/xml" norun="true"> <data:items xmlns:data="...URI for the data model..."> ...please don't even try to execute data... </data:items> </script> is crufty, but at least it disambiguates the cases. Noah
Received on Tuesday, 18 January 2011 01:48:58 UTC