- From: Ashok Malhotra <ashokma@microsoft.com>
- Date: Sat, 27 Oct 2001 11:44:19 -0700
- To: "Eric van der Vlist" <vdv@dyomedea.com>, <xmlschema-dev@w3.org>
Many people felt that to insist on a timezone made extra work for them because they always referred to a single local timezone.
Making values partially ordered creates other headaches and I would not
recommend making dates without timezones partially ordered.
All the best, Ashok
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-----Original Message-----
From: Eric van der Vlist [mailto:vdv@dyomedea.com]
Sent: Saturday, October 27, 2001 1:01 AM
To: 'xmlschema-dev@w3.org'
Subject: Is it legitim to compare 2 dateTime without timezones?
Hi,
I feel uneasy about the comparison of two xs:dateTime (or xs:date)
values when none of them have a timezone.
Doing so, we acknowledge that the timezone -which is undetermined when
not specified- is identical all over an instance document and (still
more controversial IMO) between the schemas and the instance documents.
It's kind of implying the notion of a "user's timezone" which I haven't
found explicitely described in the recommendation and which we can
specify neither in a schema nor in an instance document.
Wouldn't be safer to recognize that, like it is the case when a datetime
with timezone is compared to a datetime without timezone, there is only
a partial order when two datetimes without timezones are compared?
Eric
--
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http://www.technoforum.fr/Pages/forumXML01/index.html
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Eric van der Vlist http://xmlfr.org http://dyomedea.com
http://xsltunit.org http://4xt.org http://examplotron.org
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Received on Saturday, 27 October 2001 14:44:51 UTC