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RE: Is it legitimate to compare 2 dateTime without timezones?

From: <Noah_Mendelsohn@lotus.com>
Date: Mon, 29 Oct 2001 10:35:48 -0500
To: "Ashok Malhotra" <ashokma@microsoft.com>
Cc: vdv@dyomedea.com, xmlschema-dev@w3.org
Message-ID: <OFD2B7279E.93E38541-ON85256AF4.005477A5@lotus.com>
Also, keep in mind that even when you use a timezone, it is a construction 
in the lexical form that is not distinguishable separately in the value. 
The difference between

        1PM GMT-5
and     6PM GMT  (I know these aren't the right lexical forms)

is much like the difference between:

and     100.0

in float.  The two sets of forms represent the same values, respectively, 
and will compare equal. I was against this design choice for date/time, as 
I felt that users would expect timezones to be significant if supplied.  I 
lost, and it's certainly too late to change now.  Even when timezones are 
supplied, they cannot be seen directly in the value space. 

Noah Mendelsohn                                    Voice: 1-617-693-4036
Lotus Development Corp.                            Fax: 1-617-693-8676
One Rogers Street
Cambridge, MA 02142
Received on Monday, 29 October 2001 10:45:49 UTC

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