W3C home > Mailing lists > Public > www-style@w3.org > April 2011

Re: [css3-animation] how does 'animation-duration: 0' interact with 'animation-fill-mode'?

From: Simon Fraser <smfr@me.com>
Date: Fri, 01 Apr 2011 17:53:32 -0700
Cc: "L. David Baron" <dbaron@dbaron.org>, www-style@w3.org
Message-id: <8ED71E71-FD9F-431B-BD56-70B1991D5869@me.com>
To: Dean Jackson <dino@apple.com>
On Apr 1, 2011, at 5:47 PM, Dean Jackson wrote:

> On 01/04/2011, at 2:56 PM, L. David Baron wrote:
> 
>> http://dev.w3.org/csswg/css3-animations/#the-animation-duration-property-
>> says:
>> # By default the value is 0, meaning that the animation cycle is
>> # immediate (i.e. there will be no animation).
> 
> I think that's worded badly.
> 
> If the duration is 0, should that be as if no animation was applied at all?
> 
>> If this is the case, does 'animation-fill-mode' still apply?  (If it
>> does, the spec should be clear on whether 'animation-delay' applies.
>> Presumably 'animation-iteration-count' doesn't, though.)
> 
> There is a lot to clean up. Do events get fired? Do iteration events get fired (even if duration is 0 and iteration-count is 1 million)?
> 
> I'm not sure what the best answer here is.

I think that the "before" fill state should still apply (if delay is > 0), the "after" fill state should apply, but the animation itself is considered instantaneous. I think this is what WebKit does.

Simon
Received on Saturday, 2 April 2011 00:54:07 GMT

This archive was generated by hypermail 2.3.1 : Tuesday, 26 March 2013 17:20:39 GMT