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Re: [css3-animation] how does 'animation-duration: 0' interact with 'animation-fill-mode'?

From: Tab Atkins Jr. <jackalmage@gmail.com>
Date: Fri, 1 Apr 2011 18:08:03 -0700
Message-ID: <AANLkTim7ZNo_A3JN9aNGJvQV3s-Kqw2tHOP0MqAgL0Kg@mail.gmail.com>
To: Simon Fraser <smfr@me.com>
Cc: Dean Jackson <dino@apple.com>, "L. David Baron" <dbaron@dbaron.org>, www-style@w3.org
On Fri, Apr 1, 2011 at 5:53 PM, Simon Fraser <smfr@me.com> wrote:
> On Apr 1, 2011, at 5:47 PM, Dean Jackson wrote:
>> On 01/04/2011, at 2:56 PM, L. David Baron wrote:
>>> http://dev.w3.org/csswg/css3-animations/#the-animation-duration-property-
>>> says:
>>> # By default the value is ‘0’, meaning that the animation cycle is
>>> # immediate (i.e. there will be no animation).
>> I think that's worded badly.
>> If the duration is 0, should that be as if no animation was applied at all?
>>> If this is the case, does 'animation-fill-mode' still apply?  (If it
>>> does, the spec should be clear on whether 'animation-delay' applies.
>>> Presumably 'animation-iteration-count' doesn't, though.)
>> There is a lot to clean up. Do events get fired? Do iteration events get fired (even if duration is 0 and iteration-count is 1 million)?
>> I'm not sure what the best answer here is.
> I think that the "before" fill state should still apply (if delay is > 0), the "after" fill state should apply, but the animation itself is considered instantaneous. I think this is what WebKit does.

Yes, that's definitely the most sensical answer in my opinion.  The
animation still occurs, with all that implies, it's just

Received on Saturday, 2 April 2011 01:08:56 UTC

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