- From: Takuki Kamiya <takuki@pacbell.net>
- Date: 06 Mar 2005 17:57:13 -0700
- To: <xmlschema-dev@w3.org>, <www-xml-schema-comments@w3.org>, <xml-dev@lists.xml.org>
Hi, Section 4.2.1 in XML Schema Part 1 2nd Ed mentions in the "schema representation constraint" section that: "1.2 It resolves to a <schema> element information item in a well-formed information set, which in turn corresponds to a valid schema." (In http://www.w3.org/TR/xmlschema-1/#layer2) It basically asserts that the schema document being included has to be "valid". I am not so sure what this "valid" means. Is it "valid" in terms of what? I guess it is probably meant to be "valid" against the whole XML Schema specification. If it is the case there's another question. Say for example, schema A includes schema B, and B uses a component (eg. type definition) that is defined in schema A. My question is: does schema B have to also "include" schema A? If B does not include A, then schema B is now "invalid" since it does not validate as a stand-alone schema document because some of the references (eg. type references) do not (cannot) resolve without being aware of components in schema A. I know I can experiment with the implementations, which I did including ours and got different results. Only one implementation required schema B to include A, but others did not care about it. Any comments are appreciated. Thank you, -Takuki Kamiya (Fujitsu Software Corporation)
Received on Monday, 7 March 2005 01:02:18 UTC