- From: Brian McBride <bwm@hplb.hpl.hp.com>
- Date: Tue, 16 Jul 2002 14:58:21 +0100
- To: "Geoff Chappell" <geoff@sover.net>, <www-rdf-logic@w3.org>
At 20:18 15/07/2002 -0400, Geoff Chappell wrote: [...] >I guess my remaining question boils down to what licenses an rdf processor >to conclude that the literal on the object side of a datatype property is >referring to itself while all other literals are (potentially) referring to >entities other than themselves? Is that just built in to the definition of a >datatype? because of a implicit or explicit datatype range? or is left to >"extra-rdf" inference to make that conclusion? This a good question and I'm don't think I can answer it definitively because the WG hasn't decided. I personally tend to think of it as being built into the definition of a datatype, but I'd have to wait and see the model theory for this approach before committing myself. Brian
Received on Tuesday, 16 July 2002 10:00:11 UTC