Re: Dataypes, literals, syntax

On 2002-08-02 6:40, "ext Geoff Chappell" <geoff@sover.net> wrote:

> ... Or how about the case:
> 
>   o1==("aho","fi",false)
>   o2==("aho","fi",false) .
> 
> Can I assume that the two names do refer to the same object given that many
> (most?) words have multiple senses. I guess we'd have to assume that if
> langids were put on equal footing with datatypes since datatypes are assumed
> to functionally bind a lexical representation to a value.

I once proposed to the WG that there was little to no functional difference
between the lang attribute and datatype -- as both simply define a mapping
from a lexical representation to a "resource" of some sort -- and that the
RDF mechanisms for capturing such attribution of the literal string should
be the same as all other RDF typing, requiring the literal to be the subject
and simply taking the language or datatype as an rdf:type value, but for
various reasons, both charter related and otherwise, it didn't fly. Pity.

Patrick

--
               
Patrick Stickler              Phone: +358 50 483 9453
Senior Research Scientist     Fax:   +358 7180 35409
Nokia Research Center         Email: patrick.stickler@nokia.com

Received on Tuesday, 6 August 2002 03:37:49 UTC