Re: URI for language identifiers

Patrick Stickler wrote,
> While it may be true that I cannot point to a specific line of a
> specific spec that clearly defines such a concept of URI ownership, I
> think it's pretty naive to presume that it doesn't exist.

Why?

When you're using social/legal concepts like "ownership" you need to be 
able to point to some technical or legal rule which recognizes it (ie. 
a spec or a law), or you have to appeal to convention (ie. typical use 
in a community). If you can't point to a rule, then the concept has no 
technical or legal standing. And if you appeal to convention, then 
you've conceded most of the argument.

Or are you making a moral argument?

Cheers,


Miles

Received on Wednesday, 2 April 2003 07:38:33 UTC