- From: Jorge Fernandes <jorge.f@netcabo.pt>
- Date: Sat, 1 Jun 2013 18:11:10 +0100
- To: w3c-wai-ig@w3.org
Received on Saturday, 1 June 2013 17:11:39 UTC
A recent published PhD thesis of York University [1] wrote the follow statement in the abstract: "Comparisons between user problems and WCAG 1.0 and WCAG 2.0 did not show any significant relationship between user-based measures of accessibility and most measures based on technical guidelines." I have difficulty mostly to understand what this kind of statements means. - it's means that there aren't significative relationship between WCAG and user problems? or; - it's means that there aren't significative relationship between WCAG and the way we are trying to measure the WCAG? [1] Freire, André Pimenta. (2012). Disabled people and the Web: User-based measurement of accessibility. PhD thesis, University of York. http://etheses.whiterose.ac.uk/3873/ Jorge Fernandes ⠨⠚⠕⠗⠛⠑ ⠨⠋⠑⠗â â â ⠙⠑⠎  universalaccess.blogspot.com
Received on Saturday, 1 June 2013 17:11:39 UTC