Don't want to disrupt the telecon, but want to log this thought. From the "Overview of WCAG 2.0 Documents" we have the sentence: When a Web site claims to conform to WCAG 2.0, all information and functionality of the Web content conform to WCAG 2.0 even when a user agent supports only the technologies in the baseline. Reading it one more time, I'm suddenly uneasy/confused by it. To me, a critical aspect of baselines is that conformance *requires* the user side (user agent) to support all baseline technologies. So it's not so much conformance "even when the user agent supports only the baseline"; rather, it's "only conformance when [if?] the user agent supports the [complete?] baseline". (I know the grammar is wrong there, I'm just trying the get my idea across...) (NB: I am *not* making any statement here about whether or not I agree with the way the baseline concept have been incorporated into WCAG 2.0. As we discussed, that's a whole other question...) Best - Barry.Received on Friday, 28 April 2006 14:21:34 UTC
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