- From: Anthony Moretti <anthony.moretti@gmail.com>
- Date: Wed, 8 Jul 2020 09:43:12 -0700
- To: Thomas Passin <tpassin@tompassin.net>
- Cc: Semantic Web <semantic-web@w3.org>
- Message-ID: <CACusdfRFng==wtFJWFWK0dA4c9z0MWH_YoJOou3LsnXKro3_Mg@mail.gmail.com>
> > just because the same literal value is assigned to > two nodes does not make them the same. Is that literal value itself the > "same" for both? > Isn't the answer *literally* yes 😂 Couldn't resist, sorry. I'm really not an RDF expert though, so please just take my joke lightheartedly. I appreciate all the dialogue. Anthony On Wed, Jul 8, 2020 at 9:00 AM Thomas Passin <tpassin@tompassin.net> wrote: > On 7/8/2020 10:51 AM, Nicolas Chauvat wrote: > > On Wed, Jul 08, 2020 at 08:28:05AM -0400, Thomas Passin wrote: > >> the same points if they are not (and yes, I know that it could be > considered > >> a nice philosophical question whether they are "really" the same, but > let's > >> not enter in that here). > > > > Isn't it the whole point of the current (sub)discussion ? > > Would you say that in the real world there are several different > > literals that can have the value "hello" or would you say that two > > literals that have the same value can be considered to be the same ? > > Here's what I am thinking of, and I'll talk about points, since that was > the example I responded to (well, I think it was actually about the > center of the circle, but never mind). Think of a data point with a > specific (x,y) value for the central location, one point of a set of > data points, and let's say that that value is (1, 2). The point might > have had a value of (1.001, 1.999), but perhaps because of round-off > error or some quantization procedure, the value recorded data tuple is > (1.0, 2.0). or even (1, 2), by which I mean (int(1), int(2)). > > Now consider another data set, one of whose data points also has the > data tuple (1, 2). I am going to claim that those two data points, > members of two different data sets, are not necessarily the same points > even if they end up being represented by the same data tuple - (1, 2) in > this case. In physics, maybe the tuple values represent energy levels > that change when a magnetic field is applied, but are degenerate when > there is no field. In this case they happen to be the same as each > other because no field was applied to the one case, and in the other > case the field would not have changed the value. > > You may say that this is a contrived case because the points in question > originally were mathematical points, and they are characterized by pair > of 2-D coordinates. My point, though, is that in the context of an RDF > graph (not to mention "real life"), any particular thing (or call it a > resource, subject, or what have you) may have any number of additional > complexities associate with it even if you don't happen to have included > them in your graph. That's the good old open world assumption. > > So unless you truly know that two point nodes with the same coordinate > tuple of (1, 2) are the representing the very same thing, they may very > well be different - in the context of RDF and the open world assumption. > It's not about a philosophical difference. > > Or put another way, just because the same literal value is assigned to > two nodes does not make them the same. Is that literal value itself the > "same" for both? In some software it might be - if it's been memoized, > for example - but that's normally an implementation detail, not > something fundamental. > > TomP > > > > https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/String_interning shows that some > > programming languages store only one copy of immutable strings (or > > immutable composite values/immutable structs in some cases) even when > > these strings that have the same value are created at different places > > and times in the program. > > > > Why would you call that question "philosophical" ? Do you mean it is > > irrelevant ? If you think it is irrelevant, could you explain why ? > > > > >
Received on Wednesday, 8 July 2020 16:43:37 UTC