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RE: Terminology Question concerning Web Architecture and Linked ?Data

From: Conal Tuohy <conal.tuohy@vuw.ac.nz>
Date: Tue, 24 Jul 2007 18:12:38 +1200
To: "Booth, David (HP Software - Boston)" <dbooth@hp.com>
Cc: Mark Baker <distobj@acm.org>, Dan Brickley <danbri@danbri.org>, Chris Bizer <chris@bizer.de>, www-tag@w3.org, semantic-web@w3.org, Linking Open Data <linking-open-data@simile.mit.edu>
Message-Id: <1185257558.14697.103.camel@localhost>

On Tue, 2007-07-24 at 01:49 -0400, Booth, David (HP Software - Boston)
> > I suppose that's just a long-winded way of pointing out that
> > each of us means something different by "Tim" (even the
> > "independent observer"). We all have the same physical person
> > in mind, but we each introduce our own biases in the
> > information we publish about him, and that's what makes our
> > URIs directly identify different resources.
> I completely agree: each of those four URIs may name a different (though
> related) notion of TimBL -- a point that Pat Hayes has pressed several
> times over the years.  For the most part, the only way one can be sure
> that two URIs really do name the same resource is if they are provably
> defined to do so, such as: (a) if they are the same URI; (b) if one is
> declared by its owner to be owl:sameAs the other; or (c) if the URI
> declarations are exactly the same.

Why (in b above) only "by its owner"?

Is it because only the owner of URI A "really knows" what URI A means?
If so, how does the owner of URI A know what URI B "really" means? 
Received on Tuesday, 24 July 2007 06:13:05 UTC

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