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Re: [ontolog-forum] Logic As Formal Semiotic

From: Duane Nickull <dnickull@adobe.com>
Date: Fri, 10 Aug 2007 09:35:59 -0700
To: "[ontolog-forum]" <ontolog-forum@ontolog.cim3.net>, Arisbe <arisbe@stderr.org>, Inquiry <inquiry@stderr.org>, SemWeb <semantic-web@w3.org>
Message-ID: <C2E1E1FF.5611%dnickull@adobe.com>


IYO, does "formal" equate to normative meaning explicitly documented so the
knowledge represented can be shared?  Is it generally in the right


On 8/9/07 8:04 PM, "Jon Awbrey" <jawbrey@att.net> wrote:

> o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o
> LAFS.  Note 5
> o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o
> I have been saying that C.S. Peirce defined logic as "formal semiotic",
> that is, a formal theory of signs, and I've been saying also that this
> conception of logic develops a classical line of thinking that regards
> logic among the normative sciences.  A normative science may be viewed
> as a "design science", an inquiry into what ought to be, or what ought
> to be done in order to achieve a given set of aims, as contrasted with
> a descriptive science, that only asks what is.
> The thing that might trip a reader up at this point is Peirce's use of
> the word "formal", a word that was wrung through so many strange turns
> of meaning during the 20th Century that Peirce could have known not of.
> And I can see from several other discussions hereabouts that this very
> word "formal" has already become the bone of contention and the source
> of confusion that might have been predicted from its bedeviled history.
> So I will work on clearing that up over the weekend ...
> Jon Awbrey
> o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o
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> o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o~~~~~~~~~o
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Received on Friday, 10 August 2007 16:37:10 UTC

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