- From: Řistein E. Andersen <html5@xn--istein-9xa.com>
- Date: Wed, 27 Jun 2007 23:44:15 +0200
On 27 Jun 2007, at 8:45PM, K?i?tof ?elechovski wrote: > How does it influence the case flancée vs &oeliguvre? You might want to have a look at http://pl.wikipedia.org/wiki/ISO_8859-1 . Afterwards, consider the following: 1) Latin-1 does not contain all the characters that are required for typesetting of English. 2) It does include characters that are never used in English at all. 3) In IE, the entities that can be used without a terminating semicolon are the ones that can be found in this character set. How does this make Microsoft Anglocentric? > The only difference is that the first one is used in English. They are both used in English, actually (and the spelling with a ligature should not be considered obsolete in words borrowed from French, unlike those of Latin origin). -- ?istein E. Andersen
Received on Wednesday, 27 June 2007 14:44:15 UTC