- From: Ginsberg, Allen <AGINSBERG@imc.mitre.org>
- Date: Tue, 13 Feb 2007 10:40:41 -0500
- To: "Gerd Wagner" <wagnerg@tu-cottbus.de>, <kifer@cs.sunysb.edu>
- Cc: <public-rif-wg@w3.org>
> Not being "consistent with classical semantics" doesn't mean > much for what we are trying to do. No important computational > formalism I'm aware of is "consistent with classical semantics". What about common logic? My concern is what having such an account, i.e., essentially incorporating the well-founded semantics as part of the core, would mean to someone implementing a "classical" language (having only two truth values) which is intended to be in compliance with the core or with a FOL dialect of the core? I am pretty sure you (and Michael) will say there is nothing to worry about, and I don't have any technical counterexamples in mind, so it probably just boils down to a difference in perspective. Allen -----Original Message----- From: Gerd Wagner [mailto:wagnerg@tu-cottbus.de] Sent: Tuesday, February 13, 2007 9:43 AM To: Ginsberg, Allen; kifer@cs.sunysb.edu Cc: public-rif-wg@w3.org Subject: RE: ACTION-219: review of CORE (more) > > As far as I understand it, stable model "semantics" is basically a > > procedural add-on to classical semantics involving an implementation > > of the closed-world-assumption. This is not quite true. It's better viewed as defining a preference criterion for selecting the indended models of a rule set (as Michael has already stressed) and as a "refinement" of the (very intuitive) minimal model semantics. > But from what > I have read (including the Fitting survey you referenced) it does seem > to be a way of formalizing the closed-world-assumption, and that > assumption is not consistent with classical semantics, i.e., logic.
Received on Tuesday, 13 February 2007 15:40:50 UTC