Re: [webpayments] Abstract payment architecture (#11)

> I think there may be examples where the Payment App may be provided by the Payee's PSP, so wouldn't want to have the "(usually provided by the Payer's PSP)" in the definition.

The only situation I see this happening is if the payer and payee are using the same PSP. e.g. The Payment App is from PayPal and the merchant is using PayPal as their PSP. Are there use cases I am not thinking of?

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