Re: How we say Same literals

Hi,Here is what I meanWhen I add a subClassOfAxiom such :
Class: person    SubClassOf:         hasIdentifier value 2
However, we already have other axioms that:
DataProperty: hasIdentifier    Characteristics:         Functional
Individual: leila    Types:         person
Facts:       hasIdentifier  "2"^^xsd:string,

How can I formally explain to reader that we have "different literals" that with those axioms introduce inconsistency. 

     Le Samedi 27 décembre 2014 1h52, Bijan Parsia <bijan.parsia@manchester.ac.uk> a écrit :
   

 There is no way, and no need in a sense, to assert data value equality.  Literals have built in identity semantics and you cannot alter those equality relations.
In your specific case, same datatype and same lexical form always yield an identity (and thus an equality). But you can have many lexical forms for the same value. 
You can, of course, test for equality, though you have to do a bit of work. 
If you have a functional data property (eg P) then you can make aboxes to test eg
x P "1"^^xsd:Integer.x P "001"^^xsd:Integer.
Will be consist whereas:
x P "1"^^xsd:Integer.x P "10"^^xsd:Integer.
Will not. 
On Dec 26, 2014, at 18:35, "Leila Bayoudhi" <bayoudhileila@yahoo.fr> wrote:


Hi,How to say formally same lierals (as we say sameIndividuals axiom):can we say?:·        The data value of lt is equal to the data value of lti,  having then identical lexical form and  the value spaces of their datatypes are not disjoint.thx