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Re: element referencing vs. type´d elements

From: Geoff Elgey <elgey@dstc.qut.edu.au>
Date: Wed, 04 Jul 2001 11:11:15 +1000
Message-ID: <3B426D33.211D8097@dstc.qut.edu.au>
CC: xmlschema-dev@w3.org

> I wonder if there is any semantical difference between these 2
> schema fragments:

A more general question: can I have two schemas S1 and S2 (perhaps with
opposite semantics, such as S1 representing a "Sell" and S2 representing
a "Buy"), such that a given instance document satisfies both schemas?

That is, is there any way to treat "<Foo>" as an element in S1, but as
character data in S2, etc?

Geoffrey Elgey ph: +61-7-38641487  Distributed Systems Technology
Security Unit  fax:+61-7-38641282  QUT, Brisbane, Australia   
DSTC is the Australian W3C Office  email: elgey@dstc.edu.au
Received on Tuesday, 3 July 2001 21:11:26 UTC

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