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Re: Web Fonts

From: David Woolley <david@djwhome.demon.co.uk>
Date: Fri, 25 Aug 2006 08:30:44 +0100 (BST)
Message-Id: <200608250730.k7P7UiI30212@djwhome.demon.co.uk>
To: www-style@w3.org

> If one does not use the name in the font, how does one know that the
* font is already installed on the machine?

My belief is that the Microsoft implementation ignores the one that is
already on the machine.
> 
> If the same version of the font is already installed why does one need
* to install it again?

Because it may not actually be the same font.  If we are talking about free
fonts, trademark enforcement can be a problem, and if we are talking about
Microsoft's Arial, I may want to have the version that has the PinYin
special characters when the recipient only has the older version, without
them.

> 
> How does the OS address using the font if you don't use the name of the
> font and call it something else? Yes, I know that some graphics engines
> will use the font from the web, but they still need to be "loaded"
> to access data.

Embedded font subsets in PDF generally have generated names.

> If the font name is trade marked and a person is changing the name
* are there legal concerns? Yes, this is a run-time issue only for the
* page. However, the questions do need to be asked.

IANAL, but I believe the problem goes the other way.  In any case, this
would make font subset embedding in PDF illegal if it were true.
I vaguely remember that Microsoft print drivers use generated names when
downloading subsets to printers.
Received on Friday, 25 August 2006 07:45:56 GMT

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