RE: [F&O] IBM-FO-026: Normalization rule stated backward?

This text has been removed as a result of a decision taken earlier.

All the best, Ashok 

________________________________

From: public-qt-comments-request@w3.org
[mailto:public-qt-comments-request@w3.org] On Behalf Of Don Chamberlin
Sent: Thursday, March 04, 2004 5:55 AM
To: public-qt-comments@w3.org
Subject: [F&O] IBM-FO-026: Normalization rule stated backward?

 


(IBM-FO-026): Section 9.4, Component Extraction Functions, says "To get
the value of a component from the normalized value, the (value) must
first be adjusted to UTC or timezone Z." This statement seems backward.
Isn't it true that the normalization process converts a local time into
a UTC time? Then how can the value be "adjusted to UTC" if it is already
stored in UTC? Do you really mean the opposite (value is converted from
UTC into the local timezone)? (This would seem to be consistent with the
examples in this section.) 

--Don Chamberlin