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[F&O] IBM-FO-026: Normalization rule stated backward?

From: Don Chamberlin <chamberl@almaden.ibm.com>
Date: Thu, 4 Mar 2004 05:54:54 -0800
To: public-qt-comments@w3.org
Message-ID: <OF795CC8A4.0671125F-ON88256E4D.0038AF72-88256E4D.004C6B56@us.ibm.com>
(IBM-FO-026): Section 9.4, Component Extraction Functions, says "To get 
the value of a component from the normalized value, the (value) must first 
be adjusted to UTC or timezone Z." This statement seems backward. Isn't it 
true that the normalization process converts a local time into a UTC time? 
Then how can the value be "adjusted to UTC" if it is already stored in 
UTC? Do you really mean the opposite (value is converted from UTC into the 
local timezone)? (This would seem to be consistent with the examples in 
this section.)

--Don Chamberlin
Received on Thursday, 4 March 2004 08:55:27 UTC

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